Dear everyone,
Hello! I am so happy to be able to find a forum dedicated to the Latin language. I also so happen to be a philosophy professor, and during many of my courses I cover W.D. Ross' system of prima facie ethics, which has led me to a curiousity as to how it would be pronounced after the classical fashion.
In English, prima facie is variously rendered as:
1. Pry-ma fay-cha.
2. Pree-ma fay-cha.
3. Pree-ma fay-she.
4. Pry-ma fay-she.
By my understanding of classical pronunciation, wouldn't it be pronounced:
Pree-ma fah-key-eh?
If I am not mistaken, -ie is not a diphthong in classical latin, correct?
I feel somewhat silly telling them how to pronounce it without knowing for certain whether I am pronouncing everything myself. I tend to like to give them classical pronunciation alongside more common pronunciations (as with Descartes' cogito).
Hello! I am so happy to be able to find a forum dedicated to the Latin language. I also so happen to be a philosophy professor, and during many of my courses I cover W.D. Ross' system of prima facie ethics, which has led me to a curiousity as to how it would be pronounced after the classical fashion.
In English, prima facie is variously rendered as:
1. Pry-ma fay-cha.
2. Pree-ma fay-cha.
3. Pree-ma fay-she.
4. Pry-ma fay-she.
By my understanding of classical pronunciation, wouldn't it be pronounced:
Pree-ma fah-key-eh?
If I am not mistaken, -ie is not a diphthong in classical latin, correct?
I feel somewhat silly telling them how to pronounce it without knowing for certain whether I am pronouncing everything myself. I tend to like to give them classical pronunciation alongside more common pronunciations (as with Descartes' cogito).