Well, this is contentious, because it's a Greek word even in Latin (a foreign word to the native Latin phonology).
Historically in archaic and younger Latin the Romans would automatically accept the words with an unaspirated simple "p" sound (ἀμφορεύς or similar became ampulla), later on they would accept the "ph" words with "ph" but in the classical (and later) Latin probably only the upper class educated in Greek would pronounce it as an aspirated "ph" (at the times when the contemporary Greeks would do so somewhere too), the others would treat it as "f" (the word I mentioned was accepted to Latin again as "amphora" with a different meaning). And since we learn the upper class Latin, it's not wrong for you if you pronounce it as "ph" too, but nobody will tear your head off if you do it as "f"...