Should it be pronounced as ['impigrum] or as [im'pigrum]?
Presumably scansion in poetry?So they say. I wonder what the evidence is for it. I don't mean to sound as though I'm doubting it, I just wonder what the basis for that statement is.
I would have guessed that the second syllable would be stressed, as it is heavy. It seems to scan as such in Plautus (although Plautine scansion isn't my forte).Continuing with the topic of atypical placement of stress in Latin words, is 'afferre' pronounced as ['afferre] or as [af'ferre]?
Neither is it the forte of those who are experts in Plautine scansion.(although Plautine scansion isn't my forte).
In the case of 'impigrum', this is plausible, as the Latin medial 'r' very probably had a semi-vocalic nature (specially as a regular reflex of earlier medial s = /z/, as in flos, floris), and ancient authors were not in agreement that a sequence of this kind constituted a long syllable or short. If I remember right, Greek has some instances of this also.He pronounces them as ['impigrum] and ['afferre]
I suspect you're right, at least about the latter.I was not sure if he did that just to attract attention to the fact that the first part of these words was a suffix.
You sort of answered your own question there. The fact that it confused the OP means there's some exceptional, special quality about it. He thought, as I imagine most learners do, that 'g + r' is two consonants, and therefore '-igr' is a long syllable.What’s so special about impigrum? It fits into the general rule ‘stress the penult if it’s heavy and the antepenult otherwise’. Normally, a muta cum liquida group belongs to one syllable, so the syllabification is im.pi.grum.
Well, yes, but like most rules of this kind it isn't without exception. If I were a more industrious fellow, I'd find out some quote of Varro to prove my point.Just found the rule in my textbook that a mute + l/r after a short vowel do not make a syllable long.
That makes sense. Of instances of impigr- in poetry there are several cases in Lucretius, where the second syllable is heavy, and one instance in the Priapea, where the second syllable is light.Poets do whatever they want (VL, p. 90).
In a later chapter (#XXIII, p. 184), the author does pronounce 'afferre' as [af'ferre].As for áfferre, it’s an obvious slip of the tongue.
Lol. That made me smile.Poets do whatever they want (VL, p. 90).