Latin Exercises

R. Seltza

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Well, the perfect is usually used to look at a past action as a whole (historic perfect) ... and it works that way with sum as with any other verb ...

an example of the pluperfect:
From Ovid, met. 1,87f.:

sic, modo quae fuerat rudis et sine imagine, tellus
induit ignotas hominum conversa figuras.

Thus, the earth, that had a moment earlier been unshaped and without image, was changed and put on the unknown shapes of humans.
That's interesting. I've never really seen those forms used by themselves as a main verb before.
When I made I last post, I was referring specifically to the verb sum, lol.
 
 

Dantius

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When I made I last post, I was referring specifically to the verb sum, lol.
Yes, which is why he quoted an example of a pluperfect form of the verb sum...
 

R. Seltza

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Oh.. I've missed fuerat. :brickwall2:
 

R. Seltza

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Guys, why do some verb tenses have 2 options for conjugations (especially for 2nd person singular verbs)?

This is what I mean:
Amo Screenshot.png
 

R. Seltza

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Are the 2nd ones with the red "1" next to them the archaic ones/contractions?
 

R. Seltza

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Why do a noticeable amount of these occur in the 2nd person singular?
 
B

Bitmap

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Because your table fails to show all contractions that are possible.
 

R. Seltza

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Because your table fails to show all contractions that are possible.
Do you know of any other resources that have a table that shows all of the contractions?
 
B

Bitmap

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Do you know of any other resources that have a table that shows all of the contractions?

No ... but I think the simple rule is that -vi- and -ve- can get knocked out whenever there there is another syllable to follow...

Which is why it is always amavi and amavit, but all other cases can get contracted. the pluperfect can get contracted completely: amaram, amaras, amarat, amaramus, amaratis, amarant.
The perfect subjunctive, too: amarim, amaris, amarit, amarimus, amaritis, amarint.
 
B

Bitmap

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(too lazy to mention the rest, but you should be able to figure it out :p)
 
D

Deleted member 13757

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amaverunt / amare this one they call a historical something something...
 

R. Seltza

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Thanks for clearing that up, Bitmap & Lucifer. I didn't know that Satan could be so helpful, lol.
 

R. Seltza

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Hey @Bitmap, I was looking at the thread in the English to Latin section "The sky shall burn before the child falls into the last sleep by the lord."

I translated this, but I do have some things that I'm not too sure about. I've now made it a habit that I don't post translations there unless I'm absolutely sure of the accuracy of my translation.

Here's my translation:
"The sky shall burn before the child falls into the last sleep by the lord" =
Caelum ardebit ante infantem lapsat in somnum ultimum domino.

(Literally back-translating to "The sky will burn before the child/infant slips/falls into the last sleep by the lord."

My concerns are as follows:
-I wasn't entirely sure if "before" in this case was a preposition or an adverb. I thought it was prepositional, so I applied the PCR to the prepositional object.
-I wasn't aware of a Latin word for "child" that generally means that in a sense that doesn't specifically refer to an infant
-I believe dominus is an ablative of means here, but maybe I'm wrong about that.

What are your thoughts?
 

Pacifica

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Caelum ardebit is good.

"Before" here is a conjunction, which means it introduces a whole clause, i.e. a group of words that has its own conjugated verb, here "the child falls into the last sleep by the lord". That in Latin is antequam (which can also be split into two words as ante = "earlier" and quam = "than").

"Before" is a preposition when it goes with a single word or noun phrase as in "before dinner" or "before the next news report". That in Latin is ante.

It's an adverb when it it's used by itself meaning "earlier"/"on a previous occasion", as in "I've seen that before". That in Latin is ante, too (or alternatively antea).

Lapsat doesn't seem like the most obvious word choice here. Labitur might work better.

I'm not sure what "by the lord" means here, but an ablative of means seems unlikely.
 
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Bitmap

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There are a few problems here:

- "before" should be rendered by antequam – a conjunction rather than a preposition
- "to fall into sleep" is an idiom that shouldn't be translated literally into Latin. somno opprimi / somno mergi / somnus aliquem complectitur would be more usual.
- by the lord raises some grammatical doubt in English ... it actually sounds like child language to me

I've just noticed that Pacifica has posted already.
 
E

Etaoin Shrdlu

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One could ask the OP what they meant by 'by the lord'. I am not volunteering to do it, in case anyone should think this.
 
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