I am researching the history of the past participle agreement rule in Romance languages and have so far looked at French and Italian. In French there is a rule that the past participles of verbs must agree with direct objects in gender and number when the direct object precedes the verb: les crêpes que j’ai mangées (‘the crêpes that I ate’). According to the Italian language academy, this rule does not exist in present-day Italian and it is possible to write either la meta che ci siamo prefissati or la meta che ci siamo prefissata ('the task/goal we have set ourselves'). However, I sense that in the past Italian writers tended to follow the present-day French rule of agreement with the direct object.
What I would like to know is - and please excuse my ignorance of Latin - is there any justification for this rule in Latin grammar? Are present-day purists who oppose the reform of the French agreement rule by appealing to Latin misguided?
Many thanks for your help!
What I would like to know is - and please excuse my ignorance of Latin - is there any justification for this rule in Latin grammar? Are present-day purists who oppose the reform of the French agreement rule by appealing to Latin misguided?
Many thanks for your help!