Nōnne ūnum exemplum luxuriae aut cupiditātis multum malī facit? I didn't have much difficulty with this sentence, except for the emboldened part. My first attempt: "Does not one example of luxury or cupidity make much of evil?" I know that the correct translation is "does not one example of luxury or cupidity make much evil?" Maybe this is a genitive of description, but I just don't get why the original Latin wouldn't be "nōnne ūnum exemplum luxuriae aut cupiditātis multum malum facit? What am I missing about the genitive usage or the sense of the original, strictly translated Latin? Just an idea-- maybe the sense of the Latin is strictly-- "Does not (merely) one example of luxury or cupidity make/produce much of an evil (thing)? I know it sounds funny--and Wheelock strictly proscribes against this--but I've found that in language learning strict translations are very helpful to me, even if the English turns out not being as elegant as it could otherwise be. So, what do you think? Thanks in advance. The people on this forum are so great to us beginners.