I have a few questions about this sentence: "Putaverim hinc, Diabolum satius fecisse, si sexum priorem aliqua ratione diffamare et feminino sexu inferiorem reddere conetur." The first is what reason there might be for the use of the first person singular in "Putaverim;" the rest of the document is in first person plural. The second is how it compares to the French translation: "Je suis enclin à penser que le Diable devrait faire amende honorable en s'efforçant plutôt de rabaisser, et avec quelque raison, le premiere sexe, et de le rendre inférieur au sexe feminin." The third is what the heck is wrong with my translation: "Because of this, I maintain rather that the Devil had done it, if for some reason he might try to defame the prior sex, and to render it inferior to the feminine sex." I don't see where the "si" from the Latin went into the French, and I don't know where the sense of expediency that "devrait" adds in the French can be found in the Latin. As usual, I cannot thank you enough for helping me translate this crazy thing.