Is there ever any leeway to translate an indirect statement as an objective infinitive or vice versa? Because grammar terms vary, what I mean by "objective infinitive" is the situation where the infinitive clause is treated like an object ("The man orders the horse to charge."). I saw this sentence in my Shelmerdine grammar: Post vīnum multum postulāvērunt poētam carmina tristia clārā cum vocē canere. The first thing I noticed here was the postulāre ("commanding") verb which would prime you for an objective infinitive. I ended up translating this sentence as: "After much wine, they demanded the poet to sing his sad songs with a loud voice." But, because the verb is also "saying" something, couldn't you also translate it as an indirect statement? "After much wine, they demanded that the poet sing his sad songs with a loud voice." Could anyone help?