why not subjunctive?

By LZY, in 'Latin Grammar Questions', Jan 31, 2019.

  1. LZY New Member

    In this sentence : Cum tu omnia penuniae postponas, miraris si nemo tibi amorem praestat? (Wheelock Chap 35 S.A. No 4)

    Why is praestat used instead of its subjunctive mood?

    Thank you
  2. Pacifica grammaticissima

    • Civis Illustris
    Because it means "you're surprised if no one gives you love" rather than "gave/should give".

    For more on the use of tenses and moods in conditionals, see here.
  3. LZY New Member

    Ah thank you! It was meant to be indicative! I was so into subjunctive that I forgot it could be indicative.

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