That's the way I was taught so I have sticked to it out of habit and that's how I write, but honestly I don't know. It seems a bit illogical.Does anyone know why the use of "v" is justified by people who don't wan't to use "j", e.g., Wheelock? (obviously if you're down with using "i" and "j," might as well use both "u" and "v")
I have found one on a forum but the guy tells to contact him privately if someone wants it. Too bad it's a post made in 2008.I have wondered the same before and searched a bit on the net, but found nothing...
Isn't the p right? http://vindolanda.csad.ox.ac.uk/4DLink2/4DACTION/WebRequestQuery?searchTerm=299&searchType=number&searchField=TVII&thisListPosition=1&thisPageNum=0Not ſure if wrong, but just ſtruck me as ſimilar to Runic reclining 'Π' for 'peor'.
Mark like full ſtop distinguiſhing 'e' from 'f' looks too much like miſplaced punctum. Real stroke would be better. Plain vertical ſtroke for 'i' would also be clearer.