The title pretty much explains it. I realize why Latine was chosen by this forum and in other places (as in lingua Latina or even just lingua Latina is rather long) but has anyone ever seen that usage in print, whether classical or otherwise? It just seems more intuitive than "in <language>" as it is done in, say, English; prepositional phrases being used as adverbs just seem silly to me. (There are other prepositional phrases used as adverbs in English that I don't linguistically understand either.)
Did the Romans ever use the word Latine?
- Thread starter QMF
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Re: Did the Romans ever use "Latine"?
But I don't understand your problem with "prepositional phrases used as adverbs in English".
 Tongue.gif "(1) Tongue out :p")
uzzle:
Yes, it's found in Cicero, for instance. In fact, there's a well-known quotation from him, "Latine loqui coactus sum" (I am compelled to speak Latin).quemquem me facis dixit:
But I don't understand your problem with "prepositional phrases used as adverbs in English".
uzzle:
I've never heard of the expression "in stride". It may be American, the equivalent of "in step". These are in any case idioms, things that can't be analysed in purely grammatical terms. One could, for example, express "in time" as "timely", but I can't think of any obvious adverbial equivalent to "in stride".quemquem me facis dixit:Thanks for that
But an example of that in English is "in stride." That's never used in a non-adverbial sense, and could therefore simply be made into an adverb.
Well, "he took it in stride" means that he dealt with it well, roughly.
Latin has one of these that comes to mind (and that to an English speaker is VERY strange): ex ordine, meaning in order. My whole class (which was very small, only about 6 of us) came in, having translated that (it was in an Aeneid passage, I forget which) as "out of order" and when my teacher told us it meant "in order" we all were perplexed. I still don't linguistically understand the idiom.
Latin has one of these that comes to mind (and that to an English speaker is VERY strange): ex ordine, meaning in order. My whole class (which was very small, only about 6 of us) came in, having translated that (it was in an Aeneid passage, I forget which) as "out of order" and when my teacher told us it meant "in order" we all were perplexed. I still don't linguistically understand the idiom.
Oh, I see now. I would say "in his stride".
As I remarked earlier, the idioms of a language can't always be analysed in purely grammatical terms. You have to translate for meaning, not word for word. Add to this that "ex" is not the exact equivalent of "out of". "Ex parte" (for example) has to be rendered as "on the part [of]".
As I remarked earlier, the idioms of a language can't always be analysed in purely grammatical terms. You have to translate for meaning, not word for word. Add to this that "ex" is not the exact equivalent of "out of". "Ex parte" (for example) has to be rendered as "on the part [of]".