I have never had cause to consider it before, but I find myself supposing that the Latin subjunctive takes care of this, since optative statements are just as grounded in uncertainty as are subjunctive statements. Allow me to use an illustration in English. The statement "May I be punished as I disobey" is the optative equivalent of the subjunctive statement "I may be punished as I disobey". In English, the optative statement is distinguished from the subjunctive statement by the placement of may: in the optative statement before I as a modal auxiliary expressing a wish, and in the subjunctive statement after I as a modal auxiliary expressing a possibility. In Ancient Greek, the subjunctive and the optative were expressed as separate, distinct moods, but not in Latin. I believe (apart from being unsure whether ne should be used to conjoin the latter, subjunctive, statement) that both of these expressions would take the Latin form Puniar ut inoboedio. If that is true, then how can one know, when reading and upon encountering a sentence such as Puniar ut inoboedio, whether the writer was making a subjunctive of an optative statement? In writing these types of statements, how may one clarify when he intends to speak optatively, rather than subjunctively? Is context the only cue in Latin? Can one utilize a verb like sim in a "modal" manner to make the distinction clear, or is there some other way of so doing?