Genitive case of a word?

Abyssus

New Member
So, I could be mistaken in this and being a beginner want to understand if I am thinking about this correctly, and to be corrected if I am not and pointed to a good source on grokking this sort of thing with Latin if at possible too, which would be deeply appreciated.
I am also very tired writing and thinking about this, not the best time to be contemplating with it, so admittedly could be waaay off in the logic I'm using.

So, the phrase I am thinking about in this situation is 'pregnant void'

And from my understanding, I wouldn't use Abyssus, as in my user name for instance, but rather "Prægnans Abyssi" I am not sure of the use the ash(ae) is proper there either, but it seemed it would be from my limited knowledge. Also, could that A in Abyssi be written with the open mid-back unrounded vowel? e.g. Λbyssi - would that be proper? I assume so based on how I've heard speakers say it. And I'm also not entirely sure if "Praegnans" is the appropriate word or case for the context as well.

I appreciate any insight able to be offered here as I can't know if I am understanding and learning correctly otherwise!
 

Abyssus

New Member
:doh:Either do I.
Your saying that made me realize I wasn't thinking of the right word, genitive is not what I was thinking of and now have lithologica in terms of the word I was thinking of... Probably best for me come back to it after some sleep.

That aside, would Praegnans Abyssus be correct? And would the use of the ash in Prægnans and the open mid-back unrounded vowel in Λbyssus be correct?
 

Hemo Rusticus

Lounge Lizard
The 'ash' ligature is a later development, but that doesn't make it wrong. I guess it has a certain panache. However, attempting to represent the right vowel in abyssus is a no-no. It's not really up to us. We write in accordance with what they wrote.

Frankly, I don't know if abyssus is the right word for 'void'. It's a loanword that patently means '(bottomless) pit'. I think a better fit would be vacuum. Also, attributive words (i.e. adjectives like praegnans) are typically put after the things they modify in Latin, thus:
Vacuum Praegnans
 

Pacifica

grammaticissima
Staff member
Also, attributive words (i.e. adjectives like praegnans) are typically put after the things they modify in Latin
Nah, both orders are fine. I mean, if you do statistics you might find that the noun + adjective order is marginally more frequent, but both are really very common.
 

Pacifica

grammaticissima
Staff member
Now I've got Milton lines in my head:

Thou from the first
Wast present, and with mighty wings outspread
Dove-like satst brooding on the vast Abyss
And mad'st it pregnant:
 

Hemo Rusticus

Lounge Lizard
Nah, both orders are fine. I mean, if you do statistics you might find that the noun + adjective order is marginally more frequent, but both are really very common.
I did say 'typically', not that it must be so. It's just that if you're going to emblematize something, you might as well follow the model of the great Vaughan:

Part One of Silex Scintillans by Henry Vaughan, published in 1650 ...
 

Hemo Rusticus

Lounge Lizard

Pacifica

grammaticissima
Staff member
I did say 'typically', not that it must be so.
That's true. But, to my mind, "typically" is too strong a word, apt to be understood as "almost always", which isn't the case here.
 

scrabulista

Consul
Staff member
loca feta furentibus austris = "places pregnant with raging south winds," Vergil, Aeneid, I. 51.
 

Abyssus

New Member
Thank you for all the feed back everyone! Very helpful.

The 'ash' ligature is a later development, but that doesn't make it wrong. I guess it has a certain panache. However, attempting to represent the right vowel in abyssus is a no-no. It's not really up to us. We write in accordance with what they wrote.

Frankly, I don't know if abyssus is the right word for 'void'. It's a loanword that patently means '(bottomless) pit'. I think a better fit would be vacuum. Also, attributive words (i.e. adjectives like praegnans) are typically put after the things they modify in Latin, thus:
Vacuum Praegnans
Admittedly, I do like the panache of it, it's aesthetically pleasing to me, but the spine of my reasoning is that seeing the different characters like that really helps me to remember proper pronunciation as well as clarifying through text if it is right. That is mainly what/why I am asking.

Just to solidify, the character does indeed represent the right pronunciation, but to attempt to represent it would be improper?
And for reasons of memory or pronunciation demonstration and since it was mentioned, artistic or panache reasons, it's kind of whatever, just not considered authentic?

I appreciate the critique of using abyssus for this context. I am familiar with the word Mafalda suggested:
Inanitas is a good word.
As well as some of its variants, so have been wondering when their use is proper? Inanus, and Inanitus and Inanio? If my memory isn't failing me at the moment.
I came upon them in my research on a word in which I hit a dead end with and made a post about here with no luck, the word being "Exinanitionem"

Nah, both orders are fine. I mean, if you do statistics you might find that the noun + adjective order is marginally more frequent, but both are really very common.
This is something I have been wondering a lot about, I figured as much through seeing it time and again, and also figured it's something I'd understand more with time and familiarity, but consequently have been left confused if there are any clear cut times in which one order is more proper than the other?

Thanks again everybody!
 

Pacifica

grammaticissima
Staff member
And for reasons of memory or pronunciation demonstration and since it was mentioned, artistic or panache reasons, it's kind of whatever, just not considered authentic?
I guess so.
Inanus, and Inanitus and Inanio?
Basically, inanis means "void" as an adjective, i.e. "empty". Inanio is a verb meaning to empty, and inanitus is a past participle from that verb, meaning "having been emptied".

For the noun "void", you can say vacuum or inanitas, which have already been mentioned, or inane (which is the neuter form of inanis used as a noun).
This is something I have been wondering a lot about, I figured as much through seeing it time and again, and also figured it's something I'd understand more with time and familiarity, but consequently have been left confused if there are any clear cut times in which one order is more proper than the other?
If one of the words is more emphasized, it will tend to come first. That's the only more-or-less rule I can formulate. Overall, in most situations, it's really pretty free whether you put the noun or the adjective first. It can be a matter of whim or of which order is more pleasant to the ear.
 

Bitmap

Civis Illustris
Basically, inanis means "void" as an adjective, i.e. "empty". Inanio is a verb meaning to empty, and inanitus is a past participle from that verb, meaning "having been emptied".
Another option would be in ano.
 

Pacifica

grammaticissima
Staff member
That's really silly...
 

Hemo Rusticus

Lounge Lizard
Ah, so when I do it, it's puerile? That's ageism, dawg. Don't be trippin'.
 

Hemo Rusticus

Lounge Lizard
Abyssus dixit:
but consequently have been left confused if there are any clear cut times in which one order is more proper than the other
It's more a case of prescriptivism because, as Pacifica mentioned, both are completely acceptable. The 'postpositive' attributive, however, has to an extent been codified in science (& academia generally), e.g. homo sapiens, Bibliotheca Oxonii/Oxoniensis, horror autotoxicus, etc.
 
Top