Greek Definite Article

Iynx

Consularis
In another thread in this Section, Pops tells us that "in common Greek" there is no definite article.

Now my knowledge of that language is very limited, but in the New Testament, at least, there does certainly appear to be a definite article. To cite only the singular we have

ο η το
του τησ του
τω(ι) τη(ι)ς τω(ι)
τον την το


At the beginning of the Gospel of John we have for example ο λογος for "the Word", and even τον θεοσ for "God" (where the English, and of course the Latin) lack an article.

And what seems to be this same word appears, looking to my innocent eye like an article, in Homer, in "classical" Greek, and in modern Greek.

Yet I have heard this (to me) curious assertion about Greek before, and I can only assume that at some time or place it must be or have been true.

What do you mean by "common" Greek, Pops? Koine? I thought that
the NT was more or less Koine?

Please help out a fellow old man, unlearned in the Greek tongue, and explain to him gently about this article, that seems to be there, though men say it is not.

Thanks,
Iynx

PS (I apologize for the absence of diacritical marks).
 
A

Anonymous

Guest
the lack of a definite article

"the lack of a definite article preceding a noun invests the noun with the inherent character and potential of itself. Thus "chair" becomes the sum total of the characteristics of all things chair."

Yes definite articles are part of the language. No they do not always appear. When they do not, the above applies. If my long term memory serves.

This was not meant to be a grammer lesson, but as close an explanation of what I as a parent experience when I hear my children's names.

'K?
 
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