In Greek, a distinction is made between the Present Infinitive Active e.g. παιδευειν “to educate (habitually), to be educating”, and the Aorist Infinitive Active e.g. παιδευσαι “to educate”. (Actually, Greek has even more infinitives - because, why wouldn't you?)
Now, abstract as this sounded to me at first, it was not too difficult to grasp. But then I came across these two sentences:
Could anyone explain the difference between the two infinitives λυειν and λυσαι here? – is it a very clear difference when translating, or is the difference quite nuanced?
Now, abstract as this sounded to me at first, it was not too difficult to grasp. But then I came across these two sentences:
- ὁ θεος τον Ὁμηρον λυειν τους ανθρωπους εκελευσεν
- ὁ θεος τον Ὁμηρον λυσαι τους ανθρωπους εκελευσεν
Could anyone explain the difference between the two infinitives λυειν and λυσαι here? – is it a very clear difference when translating, or is the difference quite nuanced?