I'm not sure what you mean, Godmy. In something like quae libido, quae IS an adjective, agreeing in gender, number and case with a noun, and it has a meaning of its own ("which"/"what"... is a meaning...).
ThanksGenitive + causa = literally "by cause of" = for the sake of, in order to...
Ah, ok. Had never seen either of those. ThanksQuid quod...? = what about the fact that...?
The dative is sometimes used for the agent of a perfect participle, a bit similarly to what happens with gerundives. Literally "to/for you" but implying you're the agent as well.
Ah, ok, didn't know that (about it being an idiom) -- I guess it means "I will do [i.e. do what is necessary] in order that you may know..." i.e. "I will cause you to know..."I took it as future, because in the first place it's parallel with faciam, and in the second, because I don't know of a parallel for the present subjunctive used in the sense you give it. Faciam ut intellegas is an idiom, so I wouldn't break it down the way you seem to be doing.
That's a really good point, makes sense.For me, it's future. If it were subjunctive then Cicero being Cicero would have used the subjunctive in the id quod...a meis moribus as well.
Also very interesting. I didn't know Cicero's command was illegal (or that such a decree from the Senate would have no legal force.) It seems odd that the Senate would have the power to kill a Roman citizen, since Cicero repeatedly talks about the Senate already having issued a decree (as yet unused) to kill Cataline (e.g. in section 4: "Habemus enim huiusce modi senatus consultum, verum inclusum in tabulis tamquam in vagina reconditum, quo ex senatus consulto confestim te interfectum esse, Catilina, convenit"), but that they wouldn't have the power to send one into exile.Catiline asked for a proper discussion of Cicero's illegal command to leave Rome in the Senate.The Senate had no legal power to send a Roman citizen into exile and Catiline would be under no obligation to obey such a decree if issued.I think that Cicero may have simply wanted to avoid such a situation by evading Catiline's request and focusing on his own moral integrity.
Does the US government actually have the legal right to order a citizen killed without a trial? Wouldn't this be unconstitutional?The US federal government, and various state governments, have the power to put citizens to death, but not to send them into exile.
Why was the Senate so reluctant to act openly against Cataline, anyway (if they had the power to kill him)? I mean, wasn't it obvious to everyone what he was planning? Cicero certainly makes it sound like it was...Catiline asked for a proper discussion of Cicero's illegal command to leave Rome in the Senate.The Senate had no legal power to send a Roman citizen into exile and Catiline would be under no obligation to obey such a decree if issued.I think that Cicero may have simply wanted to avoid such a situation by evading Catiline's request and focusing on his own "moral integrity".