"Never Forget, Never Forgive"

[Ovid]

Dear Friends,

Could you please give me a suitable translation for "Never Forget, Never Forgive".

Tis the title for a piece of artwork. I find a latin title can be quite a conversational piece at galleries!

Thank you kindly,

 

[LDV]

My suggestions:
Nunquam obliviscere,nunquam ignosce!
or
Nunquam obliviscaris, nunquam ignoscas!


Question: subjunctive perfect can be used with negation NE to express strong prohibition(not sure I used the right word): e.g Ne dixeris!
My question is can it be used without ne to express strong command. Or is dixeris used only to express possibility ,e.g. Dicas/dixeris.

 

[Cato]

Question: subjunctive perfect can be used with negation NE to express strong prohibition(not sure I used the right word): e.g Ne dixeris!
My question is can it be used without ne to express strong command. Or is dixeris used only to express possibility ,e.g. Dicas/dixeris.

The perfect subjunctive is not used by itself to express a command. In can occasionally be used for the potential subjunctive, where it's little different than the present: crediderim = credam = "I would believe (it)".

The subtle difference between potential and jussive subjunctive: The first is an opinion and depends on some implied or real condition; the second is a command.

 

[LDV]

Isn't the perfect subjunctive used to express prohibiton:
'Mendaci homini ne credideris!' ?

I do understand the difference between potential and jussive subjunctive.

Question: what is the difference in meaning between imperative (present imperative) and jussive subjunctive.
e.g what is a difference between:

ignosce and ignoscas

 

[Cato]

Isn't the perfect subjunctive used to express prohibiton:
'Mendaci homini ne credideris!' ?

Yes, for prohibitions. By itself (i.e. without ne) the perfect subjunctive cannot be used to express a positive command.

Question: what is the difference in meaning between imperative (present imperative) and jussive subjunctive.
e.g what is a difference between:

ignosce and ignoscas

I've always said the 2nd pers. subj. is a more "polite" command than the imperative, more like cajoling than ordering. But an episode of the Sopranos will no doubt have several examples the demonstrate how this convention of politeness can sometimes be more imperative than a direct command.

 

[QMF]

I've always said the 2nd pers. subj. is a more "polite" command than the imperative, more like cajoling than ordering.

I think the nature of Spanish's "imperativo formal" vs. "imperativo informal" illustrates this well. The imperativo formal uses the present subjunctive form of the word, whereas the imperativo informal uses the imperative form of the word. Both of these are related closely to their Latin counterparts in terms of conjugation (e.g., "ame" and "ama" for the singular of the verb amar), which seems to further hint to this idea.