North and Hillard Composition Exercises

Callaina

Feles Curiosissima
Here's a few more things I'm unsure about

Exercise 43:
#4: He knows that not he himself but his friend is being sought for.
I wrote: οἶδεν οὐκ αὐτὸς ἀλλὰ τὸν ἐαυτοῦ φίλον ζητούμενον.
They wrote: οἶδεν οὐκ αὐτὸς ἀλλὰ τὸν φίλον αὐτοῦ ζητούμενον.
Isn't the reflexive possessive correct, since it's his own friend, not somebody else's friend?

#10: Aeneas perceived that Troy was burning.
I wrote: ὁ Αἰνείας...
They wrote: Αἰνείας...
Doesn't a proper name need the definite article?

Similarly, in #12: We think it right to honour those who fell at Thermopylae.
I wrote: ...ἐν ταῖς θερμοπύλαις...
They wrote: ...ἐν θερμοπύλαις...
Don't place names need the definite article as well?
 
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Pacifica

grammaticissima
Staff member
I think Greek uses indirect reflexives less often than Latin does, but I don't know about that particular sentence. Wait for someone who really knows Greek.

One thing I know for certain, however, is that the article with proper names of people is optional, so both your and the book's version of the Aeneas thing are correct.

I'm not sure about place names.
 

Iáson

Cívis Illústris
My answer: ἀγγέλεται ὅτι οἱ πολεμίοι ἔφυγον.
Their answer: ἀγγέλεται ὅτι οἱ πολεμίοι πεφεύγασιν.
The present has a double labda, ἀγγέλλεται.

Here's a few more things I'm unsure about

Exercise 43:
#4: He knows that not he himself but his friend is being sought for.
I wrote: οἶδεν οὐκ αὐτὸς ἀλλὰ τὸν ἐαυτοῦ φίλον ζητούμενον.
They wrote: οἶδεν οὐκ αὐτὸς ἀλλὰ τὸν φίλον αὐτοῦ ζητούμενον.
Isn't the reflexive possessive correct, since it's his own friend, not somebody else's friend?
I would imagine so, although the Cambridge Grammar (347 n.1) states 'In tragedy, manuscript evidence provides several instances of αὐτόϲ being used as a third-person direct reflexive: these are usually corrected in modern editions to contracted forms of ἑαυτοῦ (the difference between eg. αὐτοῦ and αὑτοῦ resides only in the breathing mark, and manuscript evidence is not reliable when it comes to breathings). It is possible, however, that such examples are authentic.' Maybe check the breathing?

It seems pretty weird to me to have a nominitive + infinitive and an accusative + infinitive construction joined together like that with the same verb... but I can't swear that it wouldn't happen.
#10: Aeneas perceived that Troy was burning.
I wrote: ὁ Αἰνείας...
They wrote: Αἰνείας...
Doesn't a proper name need the definite article?

Similarly, in #12: We think it right to honour those who fell at Thermopylae.
I wrote: ...ἐν ταῖς θερμοπύλαις...
They wrote: ...ἐν θερμοπύλαις...
Don't place names need the definite article as well?
That depends. Sometimes 'the lack of the article with proper names is difficult to account for, and depends on idiom and the preferences of individual authors' (Cambridge Grammar 330 n. 1). Or perhaps the writer supposed that the readers would not previously know these names.
 

Callaina

Feles Curiosissima
It seems pretty weird to me to have a nominitive + infinitive and an accusative + infinitive construction joined together like that with the same verb... but I can't swear that it wouldn't happen.
It seemed odd to me too, but the book had said to use nom + inf whenever it referred back to the speaker. So would you use οἶδεν οὐκ ἑαυτὸν...ζητούμενον?
 

Iáson

Cívis Illústris
I'm not sure, to be honest: I can't think of any parallels. I would just use a ὅτι clause.
 
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