“Nullum beneficium (est) impunitum” seems widely accepted to translate from “No good deed goes unpunished”.
Can I assume the Latin translation is good?…and is it better with the “est” or without? (The phrase appears commonly both with & without).
Many thanks all
Can I assume the Latin translation is good?…and is it better with the “est” or without? (The phrase appears commonly both with & without).
Many thanks all