Long preface short, the Salakian Empire uses a version of Latin that only has common and neuter genders because its founding race, the sargon, evolved to be female-bodied hermaphrodites who became more concerned with themselves than the surface world because their only contact with it until people began exploring the seafloor was ships dropping anchor near their territory.
By the time they'd evolved into the form above, they'd re-purposed all non-neuter nouns into common nouns, thereby making a significant percentage of II declension nouns (dominus, equus, etc.) echo the meanings of their I declension forms (domina, equa, etc.). They chose to favor the latter over the former. What percentage of II declension nouns did sargons drop because of redundancy?
By the time they'd evolved into the form above, they'd re-purposed all non-neuter nouns into common nouns, thereby making a significant percentage of II declension nouns (dominus, equus, etc.) echo the meanings of their I declension forms (domina, equa, etc.). They chose to favor the latter over the former. What percentage of II declension nouns did sargons drop because of redundancy?