Scansion of Aeneid VI:13

[Imber Ranae]

So is it not at all correct to stress the first syllable in virumque?

No, it's wrong.

Even with the enclictic -que, why shouldn't the antepenult be stressed? Or is it that I should totally revise some rules of thumb...

Even if virumque were a single word it would have to be accented on the penult, because it's long by position (weighted syllable).

 

[Callaina]

Well, yes, but it's more complicated than that. Check out my post in the thread Godmy linked to.

Thanks -- the two-step procedure chart was quite helpful.

Is there quite a bit of controversy about this subject? (I'm just curious why the professor in the video -- who appears to know his subject quite well in general -- would mess something like that up if it was a widely accepted rule...)

 

[Imber Ranae]

Thanks -- the two-step procedure chart was quite helpful.

Is there quite a bit of controversy about this subject? (I'm just curious why the professor in the video -- who appears to know his subject quite well in general -- would mess something like that up if it was a widely accepted rule...)

There's no controversy about what the pronunciation of virumque would be, and I'm not sure why he mispronounces it, but there is a controversy about accentuation after enclitics in general. The rule as it's frequently given is that the accent always goes on the syllable that immediately precedes the enclitic, this based on what some ancient grammarian says (like 4th century AD). Others say that that's a simplification that applies most of the time, but things are a bit more complicated.

 

[Tomer]

Thanks for clearing out the part of which is clearable.