Struggling to get the meanings of QVID? and CVR?.

[Puer Pedens]

Salvete, omnes discipuli magistrique Linguae Latinae, Struggling to get the meanings of QVID? and CVR?.

From Colloquium quintum decimum (Hans Orberg);

Frater apud sororem considit eamque interrogat: " Cur tam quietas es, Iulia, neque canis? (could it be Quid, too?)

Quid tristis es? (Shouldn't it be "Cur tristis es?")
Quid ploras? (Why not cur ploras?)
Quid rides, Marce? (Why not "Cur"?)

Thanks in advance.

 

[Glabrigausapes]

The defining line is often blurred or non-existent.
cur < earlier qu(u)r < quor is an old (locative) adverbial form, as seen in Lithuanian kur 'where?'. It probably originally meant *'in what way?'
The word quid reveals the difficulties of early grammar, because while it can merely mean 'what? (object)', it can also be purpose-adverbial ('what for/why?') and manner-adverbial ('in what way?/how?')

Others who have a greater knowledge of style in Latin may add to/correct what I say, but the long & short of it is that they are used interchangeably.
It may well be that quid had a greater looseness or even rusticity because its age, just as in English we might oppose 'What are you crying at/over/about?' (Quid ploras) with 'Why are you crying?' (Cur ploras?), where in the former translation there is some object, whether supposed (purely semantic) or actual (morphosyntactic).

 

[Pacifica]

and manner-adverbial ('in what way?/how?')

I don't recall ever seeing it used that way.

 

[Glabrigausapes]

I'm positive I have, but the wiki example is from Aeneid 12:
Quid nunc tē tua, Turne, potest germāna iuvāre?

 

[Glabrigausapes]

And even something simple like: Quid iuvat? 'What does it avail (you)? How does it do any good?'

 

[Pacifica]

Oh, that. I see it more as "in what respect" or "to what extent" rather than "in what manner".

 

[Glabrigausapes]

Hmm...

 

[Matthaeus]

The defining line is often blurred or non-existent.
cur < earlier qu(u)r < quor is an old (locative) adverbial form, as seen in Lithuanian kur 'where?'. It probably originally meant *'in what way?'
The word quid reveals the difficulties of early grammar, because while it can merely mean 'what? (object)', it can also be purpose-adverbial ('what for/why?') and manner-adverbial ('in what way?/how?')

Others who have a greater knowledge of style in Latin may add to/correct what I say, but the long & short of it is that they are used interchangeably.
It may well be that quid had a greater looseness or even rusticity because its age, just as in English we might oppose 'What are you crying at/over/about?' (Quid ploras) with 'Why are you crying?' (Cur ploras?), where in the former translation there is some object, whether supposed (purely semantic) or actual (morphosyntactic).

We have something similar in Polish, e.g. co/czego ryczysz? (What are you crying about?), but I feel it as more colloquial and familiar (used with close friends, relatives, people you know quite well, I guess).