Usage of the adverb "intus".

Pacifica

grammaticissima
Staff member
Now, I have found this:


where it says:
satis: Satis ("enough") does not function as an adjective in Latin, but as a noun, and therefore, does not agree with a noun, as the English adjective enough does, e.g. enough money. Instead, Latin uses the genitive case after satis to complete its meaning, e.g. satis pecuniae, "enough (of) money." This type of genitive is called a partitive genitive, another important use of this case in Latin. Like nihil (Chapter 4), satis is indeclinable.

...which leaves me more confused!
What is confusing about it?

I totally agree with that explanation.

The OLD too, by the way, only classifies satis as a substantive and an adverb.
 

Pacifica

grammaticissima
Staff member
I just noticed that the conversation somehow changed topic from nimis to satis. But both these words work the same way—as either nouns (sometimes with partitive gen.) or adverbs.
 
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