The Latin motto Verbum sapienti sat est is commonly expressed in English as "a word to the wise is enough". This translation seems to group verbum sapienti together as though it were shorthand for "a word spoken to the wise":
[a word to the sage] [is enough]
[verbum sapienti] [sat est]
An alternate translation I see on The Oxford Reference is "a word is sufficient for a wise person", cited as a variant of Plautus' Dictum sapienti sat est, translated as "A sentence is enough for a sensible man".
[a word] [is sufficient for the sage]
[verbum] [sapienti sat est].
These two meanings are quite distinct: whether the dative case generates "a word to the sage" or "is enough for the sage".
Would those of you fluent in Latin usage please offer an opinion as to which translation seems more true to the grammar or more likely a meaning?
(Yet another approach would be to consider sapienti as ablative, not dative, suggesting "a word from the sage is enough", but this might be too implausible a use of the ablative.)
Thanks!
[a word to the sage] [is enough]
[verbum sapienti] [sat est]
An alternate translation I see on The Oxford Reference is "a word is sufficient for a wise person", cited as a variant of Plautus' Dictum sapienti sat est, translated as "A sentence is enough for a sensible man".
[a word] [is sufficient for the sage]
[verbum] [sapienti sat est].
These two meanings are quite distinct: whether the dative case generates "a word to the sage" or "is enough for the sage".
Would those of you fluent in Latin usage please offer an opinion as to which translation seems more true to the grammar or more likely a meaning?
(Yet another approach would be to consider sapienti as ablative, not dative, suggesting "a word from the sage is enough", but this might be too implausible a use of the ablative.)
Thanks!
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