Specifically in the first person singular active indicative, which seem to present a special case, as they all terminate in the long -ō, which makes me question how to pronounce them. I will use the verb amō and a couple of its derivatives as an example: amō, adamō, and amīcō. Below, I will use boldface to indicate a stressed vowel of a given word, or stress in general.
As I understand the basic rule, it is that word stress initially, and fundamentally, depends upon the syllable weight of the penult: if the penult is a longum (a "heavy" syllable) it is stressed regardless of whatever else is going on in the word, so that amīcō should be pronounced amīcō (wherein the vowels/nuclei are pronounced: short, long, long). If the penult is a brevis (a "light" syllable), then it is not stressed, and where the stress falls now depends on whether or not there is an antepenult, meaning whether the word is two syllables or more than two syllables. If the penult is a brevis, and the word is longer than two syllables, so that there is an antepenult, then the antepenult is stressed whether it is longum or brevis (again, regardless of whatever else is going on in the word), so that adamō should be pronounced adamō (wherein the vowels/nuclei are pronounced: short, short, long). However, if the penult is a brevis, and the verb has only two syllables so that there is no antepenult, then I am unsure. My guess (for I have not read this anywhere) is that in this case, as in amō, one simply stresses the vowel which is "long by nature", and so we have: amō, (wherein the vowels/nuclei are pronounced: short, long). This is in contrast to the case of a two syllable word in which both syllables are breves, wherein the stress falls on the antepenult even though it is a brevis, such as with the noun afa ("dust"), which should be pronounced afa (wherein the vowels/nuclei are pronounced: short, short). Do I understand this correctly? If not, where am I going wrong?
As I understand the basic rule, it is that word stress initially, and fundamentally, depends upon the syllable weight of the penult: if the penult is a longum (a "heavy" syllable) it is stressed regardless of whatever else is going on in the word, so that amīcō should be pronounced amīcō (wherein the vowels/nuclei are pronounced: short, long, long). If the penult is a brevis (a "light" syllable), then it is not stressed, and where the stress falls now depends on whether or not there is an antepenult, meaning whether the word is two syllables or more than two syllables. If the penult is a brevis, and the word is longer than two syllables, so that there is an antepenult, then the antepenult is stressed whether it is longum or brevis (again, regardless of whatever else is going on in the word), so that adamō should be pronounced adamō (wherein the vowels/nuclei are pronounced: short, short, long). However, if the penult is a brevis, and the verb has only two syllables so that there is no antepenult, then I am unsure. My guess (for I have not read this anywhere) is that in this case, as in amō, one simply stresses the vowel which is "long by nature", and so we have: amō, (wherein the vowels/nuclei are pronounced: short, long). This is in contrast to the case of a two syllable word in which both syllables are breves, wherein the stress falls on the antepenult even though it is a brevis, such as with the noun afa ("dust"), which should be pronounced afa (wherein the vowels/nuclei are pronounced: short, short). Do I understand this correctly? If not, where am I going wrong?