In my course there is this sentence:
Ζευς δε φοβηθεις μη μανθανωσιν οἱ άνθρωποι την ἱατρικην, έκεραυνωσεν αύτον.
They say that the verb of a clause of fearing is in subjunctive if the verb of the main clause is in a primary tense (so present, perfect or future), and in the optative if the verb of the main clause is in a secondary tense (so imperfect, aorist or pluperfect). Yet in this sentence the verb έκεραυνωσεν is aorist, the participle on which the clause of fearing depends, φοβηθεις, is aorist too, but μανθανωσιν is subjunctive. So what's going on? Mistake, or is there an explanation?
Ζευς δε φοβηθεις μη μανθανωσιν οἱ άνθρωποι την ἱατρικην, έκεραυνωσεν αύτον.
They say that the verb of a clause of fearing is in subjunctive if the verb of the main clause is in a primary tense (so present, perfect or future), and in the optative if the verb of the main clause is in a secondary tense (so imperfect, aorist or pluperfect). Yet in this sentence the verb έκεραυνωσεν is aorist, the participle on which the clause of fearing depends, φοβηθεις, is aorist too, but μανθανωσιν is subjunctive. So what's going on? Mistake, or is there an explanation?