When in doubt, escalate.

Clemens

Civis Illustris
This augificō topic intrigued me, and based on a hunch that despite being rare in the Classical corpus, it may well have been more common in Late or Medieval Latin, I found that this was in fact the case. Apparently, during the classical age, verbs in -ficāre were seen as vulgar or common, and largely avoided in literature. This is not the case by the time we get to Augustine, according to Cooper. He contrasts humiliāre/humilificāre and clārāre/clārificāre. This kind of reminds me of modern English tensions between terms like orient and orientate.
 
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Notascooby

Active Member
Lot of words in -ficare occur in the Vulgate. Makes me think it might be a Graecism but I'm not sure.
 

Notascooby

Active Member
I think that the verbal suffix -fico derives from a reanalysis of facio (facere), or its root.
No doubt. I was guessing as to the reason as to why it suddenly became more prevalent in post classical Latin.

Facere when compounded with another verb becomes ficere but when compounded with an adverb it remains as facere like bene, male, satisfacere etc. Anyone know the reason for that?
 

Anbrutal Russicus

Active Member
This augificō topic intrigued me, and based on a hunch that despite being rare in the Classical corpus, it may well have been more common in Late or Medieval Latin, I found that this was in fact the case.
Oh, but it wasn't the case - there's one feeble mention in DuCange, no entry at all in DMLBS (< ibidem) or Niermeyer, with Blaise citing only Ennius. While orient/orientate is a possible analogy, I'd highlight the fact that augēre needs that formation as a chair needs a fifth leg with examples like buildify and increasify. It seems quite possible that it's translating -ιζειν in Christian authors. I would dismiss comments like "was seen as vulgar" as belonging to a different era of scholarship quality than ours.
Facere when compounded with another verb becomes ficere but when compounded with an adverb it remains as facere like bene, male, satisfacere etc. Anyone know the reason for that?
Because adverbs are friends with verbs, and bene/male/satis facere are perfectly grammatical as adverb-verb combinations, while -ficāre is a compound element that sticks to another stem, primarily to adjectival ones it seems.
 

Anbrutal Russicus

Active Member
Actually, -izāre and -ficāre have totally different meanings in Latin, the latter expressing causative change of state, the former describing state-like activities. I don't know about Greek though. Maybe someone more interested wants to investigate what Greek words -ficāre actually translates.
 
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