navibus egredi prohibebant and other questions (all within the AP readings)

aegor

magister

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I had a few questions about some passages/sections in DBG. Most of them are focused on grammatical minutiae. Any help (even partial) is appreciated.

4.24 -- navibus egredi prohibebant involves an ablative of place whence rather than separation, correction, given the motion involved in egredi? The textbook I assigned to my students has "abl. of separation," but this seems very wrong to me.

4.27 -- cum ad eos oratoris modo Caesaris mandata deferret: is modo here an ablative of accordance? Is it an idiomatic use of the ablative of manner? modo has perplexed me more than once given the stringently defined constructions of the ablative of manner in general.

4.29 -- facultas administrandi: facultas typically introduces an objective genitive given the relationship to facio, correct? I assume that is how administrandi is best explained.

4.33 -- genus pugnae: Gildersleeve labels this kind of genitive an explanatory/epexegetical genitive (§361). Has this terminology been superseded by another?

4.34 -- quanta praedae faciendae...facultas: same questions as for 4.29.

5.25 -- fuerat usus: This seems to me to be a variant of erat usus, given that if usus were a noun it would be a dative of purpose. I am aware that the pluperfect passive in later Latin was often constructed with the pluperfect of esse. Is that was is happening here? I suppose the main point is that I am confused and surprised not to see erat usus.

5.27 -- ne quā legio: is quā necessarily adverbial, or could it also modify legio as (ali)qua legio?

5.30 -- "neque is sum," inquit, "qui gravissime ex vobis mortis periculo terrear." I am comfortable with the literal meaning and the grammar, but I still fail to see what this actually is meant to signify in context. I have not found a translation that makes it clear.

5.34 -- rursus se ad signa recipientes insequatur: Ambiorix orders the Gauls to follow the Romans retreating back to their standards. I assume that se here refers to the Romans, which prompted the question of whether this is only because se recipere is an established idiom, or whether se is properly used when the object of a participle is also the noun being described by it.

5.35 -- sin autem locum tenere vellent, nec virtuti locus relinquebatur etc. -- why are future more vivid conditions thrown into the past (A&G 516 f.) subjunctive in the protasis? I have Woodcock in my office (I am on break for the summer), so a reference thereto would be sufficient.

5.40 -- ut ultro militum concursu ad vocibus sibi parcere cogeretur. I am having real problems resolving the ultro in this clause. There was a forum post somewhere that presented a compelling interpretation, but my main issue is that it is an adverb that the few online translations I have found have construed with concursu, which I am having a hard time accepting given that it would seem to also apply to vocibus, which has even less of a direct verbal meaning. The interpretation by the poster was that it meant "beyond [expectation]," but that meaning was not explicitly attested by L&S. I remain uncertain and would appreciate clarification.

5.41 -- addunt etiam....causa. This section I understand literally but do not understand in context. What should we reasonably assume was told to Cicero? The death of Sabinus certainly makes sense, but how does Ambiorix fit in? Is Ambiorix literally present? If not, how could the mention of how he defeated Sabinus and Cotta persuade Cicero given that the Nervii are attempting to deceive him in the same way Ambiorix did Sabinus and Cotta? I am not sure how to interpret this section or how literally ostentant should be taken.

6.13 -- genus eorum hominum: As in 4.33, is this commonly labeled an explanatory/epexegetical genitive?

6.13 -- numerus adulescentium: My post history will reveal a similar question previously asked: should adulescentium be considered a genitive of the whole, a genitive of material, or something else entirely? If the focus of some phrases affects our labeling of the case uses (e.g. initia belli -- possessive or objective?), is numerus here defining a subset of maturing men or a group of certain size made up of maturing men?

6.18 -- in reliquis vitae institutae hoc fere ab reliquis different, quod...: Caesar uses this ablative-of-cause-followed-by-quod construction with some regularity, sometimes with re. Is quod here a simple conjunction ("because")? If so, is there contemporary or anterior precedent? The construction seems odd to me, perhaps because I expect an ut instead of quod and am more familiar with the conjunctival quod meaning "that" or equivalent in later Latin.

6.19 -- quantas pecunias ab uxoribus dotis nomine acceperunt: is nomine here a standard ablative or purely idiomatic? None of the standard categories seems to fit.

6.19 -- vitae necisque habent potestatem: I am labeling the genitives as objective given the verbal overtones of potestatem. Is that accurate?


Thank you again for any help!
 
 

Dantius

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Location:
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4.24 -- navibus egredi prohibebant involves an ablative of place whence rather than separation, correction, given the motion involved in egredi? The textbook I assigned to my students has "abl. of separation," but this seems very wrong to me.
Gah, things like this are why I hate boxing in ablatives to such tiny distinctions. I guess I would say ablative of place from which rather than separation.

4.27 -- cum ad eos oratoris modo Caesaris mandata deferret: is modo here an ablative of accordance? Is it an idiomatic use of the ablative of manner? modo has perplexed me more than once given the stringently defined constructions of the ablative of manner in general.
Hmmm... I guess it's a strange ablative of manner, but I'm not sure.

4.29 -- facultas administrandi: facultas typically introduces an objective genitive given the relationship to facio, correct? I assume that is how administrandi is best explained.
I'd say it's objective.

4.33 -- genus pugnae: Gildersleeve labels this kind of genitive an explanatory/epexegetical genitive (§361). Has this terminology been superseded by another?
No idea.

4.34 -- quanta praedae faciendae...facultas: same questions as for 4.29.
Still objective.

5.25 -- fuerat usus: This seems to me to be a variant of erat usus, given that if usus were a noun it would be a dative of purpose. I am aware that the pluperfect passive in later Latin was often constructed with the pluperfect of esse. Is that was is happening here? I suppose the main point is that I am confused and surprised not to see erat usus.
Seems to be, indeed, a variant of erat usus. I've seen that usage in Livy, though I didn't know it went as far back as Caesar.

5.27 -- ne quā legio: is quā necessarily adverbial, or could it also modify legio as (ali)qua legio?
I think it reads much more naturally as ne qua legio with a short a, modifying legio.

5.30 -- "neque is sum," inquit, "qui gravissime ex vobis mortis periculo terrear." I am comfortable with the literal meaning and the grammar, but I still fail to see what this actually is meant to signify in context. I have not found a translation that makes it clear.
I think Sabinus thinks that Cotta's plan is going to get them killed, but he's not the type to be scared by that danger of death, as he knows that when Cotta's plan goes horribly wrong, hi (the soldiers) sapient.

5.34 -- rursus se ad signa recipientes insequatur: Ambiorix orders the Gauls to follow the Romans retreating back to their standards. I assume that se here refers to the Romans, which prompted the question of whether this is only because se recipere is an established idiom, or whether se is properly used when the object of a preposition is also the noun being described by it.
I don't know what you mean about the object of a preposition. se refers to the Romans and is the object of recipientes. The preposition "ad signa" is not relevant.

5.35 -- sin autem locum tenere vellent, nec virtuti locus relinquebatur etc. -- why are future more vivid conditions thrown into the past (A&G 516 f.) subjunctive in the protasis? I have Woodcock in my office (I am on break for the summer), so a reference thereto would be sufficient.
Do you want a linguistic reason why that happens? I don't know.

5.40 -- ut ultro militum concursu ac vocibus sibi parcere cogeretur. I am having real problems resolving the ultro in this clause. There was a forum post somewhere that presented a compelling interpretation, but my main issue is that it is an adverb that the few online translations I have found have construed with concursu, which I am having a hard time accepting given that it would seem to also apply to vocibus, which has even less of a direct verbal meaning. The interpretation by the poster was that it meant "beyond [expectation]," but that meaning was not explicitly attested by L&S. I remain uncertain and would appreciate clarification.
L+S says that ultro can mean "without aid" or "without being asked", or "of one's own accord". In context, Cicero was working very hard despite not being well, and eventually he was forced by the soldiers to spare himself. The sense of "ultro" is that the soldiers are acting of their own concord and they're running together and shouting at him without being asked, but just because they want him to be well and spare himself.

5.41 -- addunt etiam....causa. This section I understand literally but do not understand in context. What should we reasonably assume was told to Cicero? The death of Sabinus certainly makes sense, but how does Ambiorix fit in? Is Ambiorix literally present? If not, how could the mention of how he defeated Sabinus and Cotta persuade Cicero given that the Nervii are attempting to deceive him in the same way Ambiorix did Sabinus and Cotta? I am not sure how to interpret this section or how literally ostentant should be taken.
I think the Nervii are mentioning Ambiorix as the person who defeated Sabinus to show that they have inside information and are willing to name names about other Gauls, which would hopefully make Cicero trust them more.

6.13 -- genus eorum hominum: As in 4.33, is this commonly labeled an explanatory/epexegetical genitive?
Still no idea.

6.13 -- numerus adulescentium: My post history will reveal a similar question previously asked: should adulescentium be considered a genitive of the whole, a genitive of material, or something else entirely? If the focus of some phrases affects our labeling of the case uses (e.g. initia belli -- possessive or objective?), is numerus here defining a subset of maturing men or a group of certain size made up of maturing men?
It maybe could be called partitive, but I think I've seen a source calling such things material. Again, I personally think the difference is so slight as to be irrelevant.

6.18 -- in reliquis vitae institutae hoc fere ab reliquis different, quod...: Caesar uses this ablative-of-cause-followed-by-quod construction with some regularity, sometimes with re. Is quod here a simple conjunction ("because")? If so, is there contemporary or anterior precedent? The construction seems odd to me, perhaps because I expect an ut instead of quod and am more familiar with the conjunctival quod meaning "that" or equivalent in later Latin.
quod very often means "the fact that...", and is essentially in apposition with hoc "they differ because of this: the fact that...". Here's the relevant A+G section.

6.19 -- quantas pecunias ab uxoribus dotis nomine acceperunt: is nomine here a standard ablative or purely idiomatic? None of the standard categories seems to fit.
It's kind of similar to modo, I guess. "oratoris modo": in the manner of an orator, "dotis nomine", "in the name of dowry". Those two uses might be in the same category of ablatives, but I don't know what category that would be.

6.19 -- vitae necisque habent potestatem: I am labeling the genitives as objective given the verbal overtones of potestatem. Is that accurate?
Seems right.
 

aegor

magister

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Seems to be, indeed, a variant of erat usus. I've seen that usage in Livy, though I didn't know it went as far back as Caesar.
Yes. My rule-abiding mind sees only a fine line between 'variant' and 'agrammatical,' but I will do a bit of digging on the pluperfect passive to see why this variant would exist at all.


I think it reads much more naturally as ne qua legio with a short a, modifying legio.
That was my impression as well, although the few translators/commentators I have read take it adverbially.


I think Sabinus thinks that Cotta's plan is going to get them killed, but he's not the type to be scared by that danger of death, as he knows that when Cotta's plan goes horribly wrong, hi (the soldiers) sapient.
Thanks; this makes sense.


I don't know what you mean about the object of a preposition. se refers to the Romans and is the object of recipientes. The preposition "ad signa" is not relevant.
I made a typo: I meant "participle," not "preposition." Given the correction in my OP, do you have any thoughts?


L+S says that ultro can mean "without aid" or "without being asked", or "of one's own accord". In context, Cicero was working very hard despite not being well, and eventually he was forced by the soldiers to spare himself. The sense of "ultro" is that the soldiers are acting of their own concord and they're running together and shouting at him without being asked, but just because they want him to be well and spare himself.
Right, but the grammar seems odd given that it is an adverb apparently modifying a noun given that it would be a major stretch in meaning to take it with cogeretur.


I think the Nervii are mentioning Ambiorix as the person who defeated Sabinus to show that they have inside information and are willing to name names about other Gauls, which would hopefully make Cicero trust them more.
There seem to be two main options here (at least as far as I can see):

1) They give the dirt on Ambiorix as a way to earn Cicero's trust. Here fidei refers to trust, as between friends.
2) They simply mention details (i.e. the names) in order to establish factual credibility. Here fidei suggests only that there information is trustworthy.

In either case, should we assume that they left off mention of how Ambiorix defeated Sabinus? Caesar makes it clear that the Nervii were attempting to deceive Cicero in the same way as Ambiorix did Sabinus, so it would seem odd to me for them to mention how those events played out in detail and then expect Cicero to behave the same way, given that he had just been given the playbook. In other words, is Caesar telling us that the Nervii simply mentioned that Sabinus was killed by Ambiorix's doing without going into detail about the events?


quod very often means "the fact that...", and is essentially in apposition with hoc "they differ because of this: the fact that...". Here's the relevant A+G section.
Thank you!
 
 

Dantius

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Location:
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I made a typo: I meant "participle," not "preposition." Given the correction in my OP, do you have any thoughts?
Oh. Yes, a participle still uses se for a reflexive direct object.




Right, but the grammar seems odd given that it is an adverb apparently modifying a noun given that it would be a major stretch in meaning to take it with cogeretur.
Hm, perhaps since concursus is kind of a verbal noun, Caesar's stretching the usage and putting an adverb with it. He sometimes does funny things with verbal nouns, like "domum reditionis spe sublata" in Book 1, where domum (to home) goes with the verbal noun reditio rather than an actual verb.


In other words, is Caesar telling us that the Nervii simply mentioned that Sabinus was killed by Ambiorix's doing without going into detail about the events?
Most likely, I'd guess.
 

AoM

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Regarding the explanatory genitive, what do you mean by "has this terminology been superseded by another"?
 

aegor

magister

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Some of Gildersleeve's terminology differs from A&Gs and other grammars that are in more current use today. I was simply wondering whether there was a more common term for what Gildersleeve calls the epexegetical/explanatory genitive.
 

AoM

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I think 'appositional'.

Bradley's Arnold:

"A defining or appositional genitive is sometimes added to another substantive to explain or define its sense: virtus iustitiae, the virtue of justice; gloriae praemium, a reward consisting in glory."

A&G:

"A limiting genitive is sometimes used instead of a noun in apposition (Appositional Genitive)..."

Bennett's New Latin Grammar:

"Appositional Genitive. The Genitive sometimes has the force of an appositive; as,--

nomen regis, the name of king;
poena mortis, the penalty of death;
ars scribendi, the art of writing."

Common with names of towns, islands, etc.
 

aegor

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Right, but I am not quite sure that the relationship between the genitive and the other noun is quite the same.

hoc genus pugnae. Is the fight merely redefining the type? That seems a stretch. It almost appears to me to have a partitive flavor but still seems far enough away from that to be something else.

This seems to be an inversion of the genitive of description: pugna huius generis. Perhaps there is something in that.

By the way, this has been bothering me for years.
 
 

Dantius

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Location:
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I think 'appositional'.

Bradley's Arnold:

"A defining or appositional genitive is sometimes added to another substantive to explain or define its sense: virtus iustitiae, the virtue of justice; gloriae praemium, a reward consisting in glory."
Plautus has the phrase monstrum hominis (you monster of a man). Would you call that an appositional genitive, AoM?
 

AoM

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Right, but I am not quite sure that the relationship between the genitive and the other noun is quite the same.

hoc genus pugnae. Is the fight merely redefining the type? That seems a stretch. It almost appears to me to have a partitive flavor but still seems far enough away from that to be something else.

This seems to be an inversion of the genitive of description: pugna huiusgeneris. Perhaps there is something in that.

By the way, this has been bothering me for years.
It's defining, not redefining. "We're talking about types?" "Types of what?" "Types of fights."

You could say the same for a genitive in general. "That dog isn't just any dog. It's my brother's."

I'd consider this use from the Aeneid closer to a partitive, but it's still defining, clarifying, the type of genus here:

Quod genus hoc hominum?
Plautus has the phrase monstrum hominis (you monster of a man). Would you call that an appositional genitive, AoM?
Not entirely sure; maybe. "He's a monster when it comes to being a human."
 

aegor

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I am not clear on the distinction you are drawing between defining and redefining.

The appositional genitive could be replaced, obviously, with an appositive: urbs Romae could become urbs, Roma. So too for virtus iustitiae. I fail to see how that is possible in the genus case: genus, homo makes no sense.
 

AoM

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The distinction was just that redefining implies it was defined to begin with.

In the Aeneid sentence, I guess if you removed genus, you'd then need something like quales.

It doesn't seem to be a 1:1 to conventional apposition, so using epexegetical may be more clear.

I don't have any Caesar commentaries, but I imagine someone has said something about pugnae.
 

AoM

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And actually, for the Aeneid sentence, it holds if you translate genus as 'race'.
 

aegor

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Even then, I am not sure it would: "What race, men, is this?" If it were genus hominis, perhaps.
 

AoM

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I mean:

"What race is this (what men are these)?"
 
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