The Apology of Plato


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Been working my way through some Plato and hit a snag hopefully someone can help with. Why in the following passage does σχολη not come with a definite article? 'Leisure/ spare time has arisen for me worthy of the word neither to.....etc.'

και υπο ταυτης της ασχολιας ουτε τι των της πολεως πραξαι μοι σχολη γεγονεν αξιον λογου ουτε των οικεων αλλ εν πενια μύρια ειμι δια την του θεου λατρείαν




In English, constructions (more formally syntagms or syntagmata) of this type are so abundant as to make it entirely arbitrary whether the definite or indefinite article (or nothing) is used, e.g.:

I had a moment to read your letter (ten minutes ago).
I had the time to read your letter (yesterday).
I had () time to read your letter (over the course of the day).

You could use any version in any sentence, and nobody would bat an eye. But Greek, as far as I know, prefers the last (that is, no article), in cases of: ideal time (καιρος), general time (χρόνος), need (χρή), want (χρεία), etc..
As far as abstractions like τιμή or πόθος go, I'm inclined to say that Greek leans more toward the modern Romance languages, which use the definite article, as in S el amor & F l'amour 'love' (not 'the love'). But I would not rely too heavily on following your nose; just imitate the authors.


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Χαιρετε ω φίλοι

Hope someone can help me with the following from 32c9-d3

Τοτε μεντοι εγω ου λογω αλλ εργω αυ ενεδειξαμην οτι εμοι θανάτου μεν μέλει, ει μη αγροικοτερον ην ειπεν, ουδ οτιούν, του δε μηδεν αδικον μηδ ανοσιον εργαξεσθαι, τουτου δε το παν μέλει.

The sense is pretty clear but what has me stumped is why in the first part of the sentence with μev Plato uses ουδ but in the second part with δε he uses μηδεν?



Now I'm thinking that the negative is μηδε because of the articular infinitive?
Reeheehee, you got it, buddy. μηδείς in subordinate clauses, including those governed by an infinitival phrase.